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Pourquoi le subjonctif futur n'existe-t-il pas — ou plus — en français ?
Il existait en latin, et a survécu en espagnol et en portugais. Ce n'est donc pas une conception absurde. Mais son absence implique un manque de logique dans l'accord des temps. Présent : "Je ...
Oct 29 '13 at 9:25
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