This question is on "se" in the last sentence of the following quote from L'Étranger by Camus.
Nous nous sommes mis en marche. C’est à ce moment que je me suis aperçu que Pérez claudiquait légèrement. La voiture, peu à peu, prenait de la vitesse et le vieillard perdait du terrain. L’un des hommes qui entouraient la voiture s’était laissé dépasser aussi et marchait maintenant à mon niveau.
From English translations, I understood that one of the men had fallen behind and got level with the narrator.
(1) Should I understand that "se" refers to the man who fell behind. That is, should I understand the sentence to mean that he "had allowed the passing of himself"?
(2) Should I understand that the implicit subject (agent) of "dépasser" is the car (la voiture) and anything else in the procession between the car and the narrator (moi)?
(3) If we replace "se" with "le," would that be ungrammatical?
My motivation for question (3) comes from considering English sentences like, "He let himself be passed" but "He let her pass him." I think my (English-speaking) mind wants to assimilate "se dépasser" in the quote to "her passing him" because "se" occupies a position like "him" (in being the object of "dépasser") even though "se dépasser" does not have an explicit agent (like "her" in "her passing him").