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Could anyone explain with simple examples the difference between "past anterior" (Le passé antérieur) and "pluperfect of the indicative" (le plus-que-parfait de l'indicatif)? The only difference I know is the formation of the tenses. I would especially like to know the difference when one translates a sentence from French to English.
Are they both translated as "had done something"? Or is there any other nuance?
There's absolutely no difference in meaning. The passé antérieur is the literary equivalent of the plus-que-parfait.
They're used in exactly the same constructions (e.g., after après que) but the plus-que-parfait is "normal" - used in spoken French and informal writing, while the passé antérieur is literary: limited to literature and other formal writing.
