In Paris I noticed an ad for some fast food or other that joked, « C'est à moi. Pas touche ! »
To a learner, this idiomatic expression naturally sounds like an inversion of the expected « [Ne] touche pas ». But how did it come to be this way?
For the etymology, Wiktionnaire simply links pas and toucher and adds « siècle à préciser ». Meanwhile, the TLF, as usual not the strongest on multi-word phrases, has no entry. My Robert Micro doesn't mention it and neither does Larousse. Google results show it alive and well, though.
- Where did this expression come from and how did it function syntactically?
Edit: This second part of my question turns out to be duplicated elsewhere.
What's more, my searches for the expression turned up some odd behaviour: namely, that this expression tends to be followed by à as if toucher were not transitive, suggesting that there is not much of the original toucher left qua transitive verb. « Pas touche à mes frites ! »
- Why is this expression followed by à instead of the direct object?