According to Reverso conjugation it's the plus-que-parfait conjugation of avoir, and according to this Duolingo forum post, the plus-que-parfait should translate to "I had (verb)ed", so would you say "I had had" in english or what?
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1To explain what it means, it's helpful to include more context, like a sentence using it. If it's a question about the verb tense, that's also something you could include in your question. Bienvenue sur French SE ; please take a moment to tour the site.– livresqueJan 5, 2021 at 2:13
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1 Answer
For a correct use of "plus-que-parfait", you must understand the "concordance des temps" in French.
In the case of "plus-que-parfait", you express an anteriority in the "phrase subordonnée" (i.e. subphrase, often introduced by "que") with respect to a main action that occured in the past (so you are more in the past than the action in the past). It is probably easier with an example:
Je disais : "Je suis arrivé!" ("J'ai eu mal!")
becomes (with a "phrase subordonnée")
Je disais que j'étais arrivé. (...que j'avais eu mal.)
(Both actions are in the past, but "arriver" occured before "dire")
You should check for the exact use of "I had had" in English, but as far as I know this is the past perfect, used in similar cases than in French. However, English has an extra distinction with the "past perfect continuous" (no equivalent tense in French), while in French you must be careful that "plus-que-parfait" is a tense of the "indicatif", so it is not used when the "phrase subordonnée" is in the "subjonctif" (e.g. after a "wish verb")
