I know French is well known for its illogical spelling with regards to pronunciation but I was puzzled at these two words being the same despite the conjugation being different and the addition of a syllable. But everywhere I checked the pronunciation appears to be the same.
Is this really the case?
Also seems to be the same with other words that have a similar structure to this, like préféreras and préféras. I wonder what the reason for this extra syllable not affecting pronunciation.