I know French is well known for its illogical spelling with regards to pronunciation but I was puzzled at these two words being the same despite the conjugation being different and the addition of a syllable. But everywhere I checked the pronunciation appears to be the same.
https://conjugueur.reverso.net/conjugaison-francais-verbe-r%C3%A9cup%C3%A9rer.html
https://www.deepl.com/fr/translator#fr/en/r%C3%A9cup%C3%A9ras
https://www.deepl.com/fr/translator#fr/en/r%C3%A9cup%C3%A9reras
Is this really the case?
Also seems to be the same with other words that have a similar structure to this, like préféreras and préféras. I wonder what the reason for this extra syllable not affecting pronunciation.