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The Collins diction provides present tense indicative conjugation of "mener". All conjugations have an acute accent above the 1st "e", except for "nous" and "vous". If I listen to the online pronunciation, the first syllable sounds the same for all conjugations. Why is there an acute accent from some of these conjugations?

https://www.collinsdictionary.com/dictionary/french-english/mener

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  • It would help if you gave a direct quotation of the "All conjugations have …" text. In particular, it would make it a lot more obvious to readers that it's really a grave accent that's in question, not an acute accent. Feb 7, 2022 at 1:20
  • I linked to the Reverso conjugation. Thanks for the suggestion. Feb 7, 2022 at 1:57

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The first syllable of the first and second person plural do not sound the same as other conjugations:

Conj. IPA
je mène /mɛn/
tu mènes /mɛn/
il/elle/on mène /mɛn/
nous menons /mənɔ̃/
vous menez /məne/
ils/elles mènent /mɛn/

As you can see, all forms are pronounced the same (/mɛn/) except menons and menez.

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