If you look at the following chart:
You'll find that between 'chauds amours' and 'chaudes amours' the former does not even exist. In the singular there is some debate between 'chaude amour' and 'chaud amour', but in the long course of history usually 'chaud amour' predominates though 'chaude amour', for example, in the early 2000s was more common. In the dictionary it says here:
,,Amour, après avoir longtemps hésité entre les deux genres, est considéré par les grammaires classiques comme masculin au singulier et féminin au pluriel. Le genre masculin semble aujourd'hui se généraliser pour les deux nombres`` (cf. aussi Littré, rem. et Grev. 1964, § 253)
I mentioned this to my language exchange partner and she was not aware of it though she admitted that she never says 'chauds amours'. She was dismissive of the rule as a useless detail. My question is are French speakers aware of this? Are they aware that some nouns (I think there are a few more) switch genders as they switch number? If I were to say 'chauds amour' would that leap out at them in the same way that "I require that he remains in the park" leaps out to English speakers? So far I've never met an monolingual English speaker that understands why the sentence "I require that he remains in the park" is ungrammatical?