Do these constructions have a standardized way of being translated into English, or can their translation vary based on context?
More details:
I have noticed that these constructions are usually linked to the article partitif "du", answering the preceding question either in the positive (il y en a) or in the negative (il n'y en a pas).
But can they also be used in other contexts? For example, can they also be used purely idiomatically? If so, what would they mean if used only idiomatically?
Do these constructions have a standardized way of being translated into English, or can their translation vary based on context?
Depending on context, you may prefer to translate "there is (are some)/there isn't" with "il existe/il n’existe (aucun)", especialy in maths.
There are some idiomatic sentences using it that may more or less idiomatic, like "il n’y a qu’à voir" that you may prefer to translate "having a look at it say it all" or something like that.
Also, in a more familiar register, "(il) Y en a, je te jure…", may be translated "Some people make me feel so angry, I swear that would they be in front of me…".
But most of idiomatic sentences using this construction are idiomatic on an other part of the sentence, like "Il n’y a pas de quoi en faire un fromage !", that is "There's nothing to make a drama out of". Well you may just as well say "Il n’y a pas de quoi en faire un drame !", but you know that frenchs and cheese is an epic story. ;)
We were taught that "il y a" means "there is" and "il y en a" means "there are". However, that was in the early eighties - and I did have an excellent French teacher, but maybe modern French is changing dramatically enough to drop subtle 'formalities'. Again, it may depend on the context in which it used. I hope this is of some help.
