0

This question already has an answer here:

Why is french negation constructed with ne ### pas? I mean where does the "pas" come from? Comparing it with spanish, wouldn't it be more natural to have "je ne suis médecin" instead of "je ne suis pas médecin" and having to carry the "pas" everywhere?

Note:I am aware that there are other negations (ne ### jamais, ne ### que ...), so please don't address your answers from this perspective.

merged by Stéphane Gimenez Feb 14 '14 at 22:05

This question was merged with Why does French use a “split negative”? because it is an exact duplicate of that question.

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.