Timeline for Given the lack of a gender-neutral pronoun in French, how should one refer to somebody of unknown gender?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
9 events
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| Jun 2, 2013 at 19:44 | comment | added | Romain Valeri | (+1) Excellent answer. I added an answer which is quite similar to the last paragraph of yours. | |
| Sep 5, 2011 at 16:54 | comment | added | Joubarc | @Evpok Follow your lead? No, thanks. Show me gold and I may be willing. | |
| Sep 3, 2011 at 1:41 | comment | added | Evpok | @Joubarc Follow my lead : be an annoying pedantic linguistics fanboy and pester everyone with the fun fact :p | |
| Sep 1, 2011 at 12:09 | comment | added | Joubarc | It's a more sensible way of seeing things, but I'm afraid the lack of masculine has forced people to believe that the default was, in fact, masculine. I for one didn't know about that. | |
| Sep 1, 2011 at 11:36 | comment | added | Evpok | I was taught that it is not a matter of any gender's superiority. The reason why "le masculin l'emporte" is that there is no real masculine in French, what we call "masculine" is rather a default gender, the feminine being the only inflected gender. So il is the neutral pronoun, in a somewhat twisted way. | |
| Sep 1, 2011 at 11:22 | comment | added | Benjol | @Jez, in a language where beard is feminine and vagina is masculine, taking political-correctness down to the level of grammar is a non-starter :) | |
| Sep 1, 2011 at 9:41 | comment | added | Jez | Seems like English, only with less feminist influence. :-) | |
| Sep 1, 2011 at 9:40 | history | edited | F'x | CC BY-SA 3.0 |
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| Sep 1, 2011 at 9:39 | history | answered | Joubarc | CC BY-SA 3.0 |