I have come across this situation several times and find it rather curious.

There exists both an informal and a formal imperative of 'aller' (as with any imperative), these being 'va' and 'allez' respectively. I would therefore expect a mother telling her child to get off the floor and hurry up to say "va, debout". Yet I heard her say "allez, debout".

Why is she using 'allez' instead of 'va' with her little toddler?