A very simple question concerning the verbe « barrer »

Question

Larousse states that one of the definitions of the verbe barrer is

Traverser une surface, être disposé en travers : L'écharpe de maire lui barrait la poitrine.

My question is regarding the example

L'écharpe de maire lui barrait la poitrine.

I don’t know how to articulate my question correctly as my level is still beginner but I will try my best. I’m trying to understand why « lui » is present. What is the pronoun « lui » replacing? As in if the pronoun « lui » wasn’t written, then what would be written instead?

If the Mayor’s name is Camille, then I’m guessing what would be written is

L'écharpe de maire barrait la poitrine à Camille.

Is this correct?

Answer 1

Yes lui refers to the mayor.

Your sentence is understandable but would likely be stigmatized because it looks like you translate "Camille's chest" by "la poitrine à Camille" while "la poitrine de Camille" is expected.

You can then say:

L'écharpe de maire barrait la poitrine de Camille.

or just reword the original sentence that way:

L'écharpe de maire barrait sa poitrine.

See also:

Limits on the Use of the Indirect Object Pronoun to Indicate Possession

Possessive adjective before a body part

French possessive adjectives vs reflexive pronouns (when to use and how)

Answer 2

Usually, lui replace a "complément d'objet indirect" so yes it is replacing maire. It could be also formulated as L'écharpe de maire barrait sa poitrine without going through 'lui', but that would be vague without any other explanation about the person whom the écharpe is barring the chest.